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Its false, why? bc the domain of every rational function is need not be the set of real numbers
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The domain values of a rational function are not only restricted to the only set of all real numbers making the given statement false
The domain of a function is the input values of the function for which it exists.
Rational functions are function that can be written as a ratio of two functions. For example given the function f(x) = 2/x-3
The domain values are the input values x. The values of x can be any values either real numbers, integers, or even natural numbers.
This means that the domain values of a rational function are not only restricted to the only set of all real numbers making the given statement false
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