joenidelarosa
joenidelarosa
29-09-2020
Mathematics
contestada
Explain why sin (-pi) equals -1 not 1
Respuesta :
Alaiamarie
Alaiamarie
29-09-2020
The inverse sin of 1, ie sin-1 (1) is a very special value for the inverse sine function. Remember that sin-1(x) will give you the angle whose sine is x . Therefore, sin-1 (1) = the angle whose sine is 1.
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 36+ )
Otras preguntas
If data are from a trusted source and the results are validated by multiple tests, the evidence supporting a scientific claim is
Need help..... Pablo has $4200 to invest for collage. A. If Pablo invest $4200 for 3 years and earns $630. What is the simple interest rate? B. Pablo's goal is
What is the answer to..2/3 y + 3 = 29 ? I really don't understand this...please help.
Does the Warsaw Pact still exist today? If so, how many members are there?
What are two ways the Chinese used porcelain and tea
Explain the central difference between main details and supporting details of a piece of writing.
How can geologists use acid to confirm that the rock towers are made of limestone ?
when a person uses an iron to remove wrinkles from a shirt why does heat travel to the iron to the shirt
The English King James I wrote a book about monarchy that argued that _____.
A profit of $9. I don't know what profit means can u help me?