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Closed last year.
I learned from a question that I recently solved that the orbital angular momentum depends on both the azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers.
I did not expect this because the formula for the orbital angular momentum is \sqrt{l(l+1)} \frac {h}{2π} and so I expected it to only depend on the azimuthal quantum number.
So, why does orbital angular momentum depend on the magnetic quantum number? A detailed explanation will be appreciated.